Paul's Letter to the Hebrews

Hebrews is the grand finale of Paul's Letters. From Romans to Hebrews, he completes the greatest theological dissertation ever written regarding the Bible. He conforms every vital tenet of the Old Testament to the New Testament. Hebrews is consistent with Paul's style and theology.

The Letter to the Hebrews is essentially the best commentary on the Bible. Paul takes great pains in showing how the Old Covenant prophesies were fulfilled in the New Covenant. He takes every commandment of the Old Covenant and demonstrates how it dovetails with the commandments of the New Covenant.

Paul's ultimate conclusion is that Eashoa Msheekhah (Jesus the Messiah) is Allaha (God) -- Hebrews 13:20 -- which is the essence of Christianity and its saving grace.

Here, I give you Paul's Letter to the Hebrews, translated from the Ancient Aramaic; judge for yourselves. Why would Paul write to the Hebrew people in Greek and quote the Torah through a Greek translation? Please read this Letter and compare it verse by verse if you like to the Western versions that were translated from the Greek and see which translations make more sense.

Hebrews chapter: 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 | 11 | 12 | 13 | Aramaic Bible Supporters Index

If Paul wrote the Letter to the Hebrews in Greek, then he would've had to translate all the Hebrew Torah passages that he quoted from the Ancient Aramaic-Hebrew Scriptures into Greek.

Let's say that he did that, as the Western Churches claim, pointing out that the Jewish community to which the Letter was addressed all knew Greek, because Greek was the language of trade. How could Paul, a learned Pharisee, have quoted the Scriptures in a language that could never match the elegance of the Aramaic-Hebrew verse of the original Scriptures, let alone into a language that would force him to introduce errors in the translation? Besides, was the Scripture intended to be recorded in the language of trade? Then again if Paul had translated the Torah into Greek, would not that mean that the Torah was in the Ancient Aramaic-Hebrew originally?

However, the Western churches insist that even the Old Testament was first compiled in Greek, citing the antiquity of the Septuagint Bible, which was recorded by seventy Greek theologians sometime between the 2nd and the 3rd centuries BC, and thus the name "Septuagint." Thus, we have this state of affairs in the Western World regarding the Scriptures and the denial of the existence and authenticity of the Ancient Aramaic Scriptures.

The Western churches also insist that the Ancient Aramaic New Testament was translated from the "Greek Original", while ignoring the fact that the Ancient Aramaic New Testament is consistent with both the Torah and the rest of the Books of the Old Testament. Now, the only way that could've happened is that when the Ancient Aramaic theologians supposedly translated the New Testament from the Greek they must've conformed the Ancient Aramaic to the original Scriptures and not to the Greek New Testament.

It gets even more confusing. How could the entire New Testament end up in verse as a result of it being translated from the "Greek Original" into the Ancient Aramaic? Did the Ancient Aramaic theologians create the verse from scratch? What does it take to convince some of the readers of this website that the position of the Western churches regarding the Greek origins of the Scriptures is a serious falsification of the truth? I keep getting letters from these readers insisting that the New Testament was written in Greek and asking me for archeological evidence and scientific proof that the manuscripts I'm translating from are older than the Greek versions. Most of these people don't even bother to compare my translation to the Western churches' translations. And then there are those readers who don't agree with me that the original Scriptures were first originated in the scribal language, but still want me to translate because they enjoy the insight of the Ancient Aramaic!